George Orwell (1984) says:
"He who controls the past controls the future.
He who controls the present controls the past.”
I am confused. Even after applying my little knowledge of Aristotlean Logic this great statement of Orwell doesn't make any sense.
Let's syllogistically analyse the premises:
He who controls the past controls the future (1st Premise - Major / Minor Premise)
He who controls the present controls the past (2nd Premise - Major / Minor Premise)
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Therefore, He who controls the future controls the present (1st - Conclusion)
Therefore, He who controls the present controls the past (2nd - Conclusion)
Certainly the 1st Conclusion is close to realism, but then the tense seems to be the problem. Can anyone help?
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